I have noticed, in the last week, an ad on several blogs claiming the ‘end of the gay marriage debate’, based on a linguistic (re)analysis of the Greek — one assumes that we are talking about the Septuagint, here, which was a Greek translation of the Hebrew (and Aramaic) canon of the time — which (we are told) only contained an injunction against misusing underage boys. Wait, are we talking about the book of Leviticus, here, in which ‘[lying] with a man as with a woman’ is declared to be an ‘abomination’ on the part of both participants? This clearly isn't referring to child-rape, nor rape of any other sort. (Or are we, perhaps, talking about 1 Corinthians, originally in Greek, in which ‘sodomites’ are excluded from heavenly hope, in which case let's by all means never mind Leviticus!)
But fair enough, so far as it goes: By all means, let's review the proper English-language translation of the Bible, back to the original languages. But how does this affect the debate on gay marriage? Does not every biblical mention of marriage explicitly refer to a heterosexual, presumptively productive union?
But I'm just being difficult, I'm sure.